From: Michael Hubert Kenyon on
Adrian wrote:
> "Robert D." <robertdale(a)guerillamail.org> gurgled happily, sounding much
> like they were saying:
>
>>>> I mean, fitting a speedo drive incorrectly is pretty difficult!
>
>>> So's not noticing oil drips on the ground under the car.
>
>> It's garaged overnight.
>
> Even easier, then.
>
>> No oil drips at all in the month we have had it, previous owner has
>> mentioned none either.
>
> Sounds unlikely, if the gearbox has run dry of oil in a few short months.
>
> B'sides, I can see a speedo drive being slightly awkward to refit back in
> the old cable days, but not these days when it's just an electrical
> sensor. It wouldn't even be removed from the 'box to replace the clutch -
> merely the electrical plug unplugged.
>
>> I will part exchange the car this weekend I suppose
>
> Full disclosure of the problem, I hope?

Nah let a dealer have it

From: Michael Hubert Kenyon on
Rob Graham wrote:

>
> I'd get the previous owner to demand recompense, warranty or no
> warranty, present owner or not, or 'see you in court'. If the garage
> gets out of this then it's a pure technicality. They are absolutely liable.
>
> Rob Graham

They are absolutely NOT liable. You cannot pass on a warrenty unless it
is agreed by all parties beforehand.
From: Michael Hubert Kenyon on
Andy Cap wrote:
> On Thu, 27 May 2010 14:33:58 +0100, "steve robinson"
> <steve(a)colevalleyinteriors.co.uk> wrote:
>
>
>
>> If the prevous owner goes to court demanding recompense then he is
>> likely to get nailed for fraud if he states he owns the vehicle when
>> he clearly doesnt which is criminal not civil
>
> Why can't the original owner claim, on the grounds that he has had to recompense
> the purchaser, which he should do anyway because he sold him a pup?

Because the car doesn't belong to him anymore. If I sell a car I can't
pass on a warrenty from the guy who owned it three owners before me can I?

From: steve robinson on
Rob Graham wrote:

>
> > > I'd get the previous owner to demand recompense, warranty or no
> > > warranty, present owner or not, or 'see you in court'. If the
> > > garage gets out of this then it's a pure technicality. They are
> > > absolutely liable.
> > >
> > > Rob Graham
> >
> >
> > The garage has no liability unless they expressly state warranties
> > are transferable
>
> Work has to be fit for purpose. Written warranties are not the
> whole picture.

Agreed but the prevous owner who paid for the work had no problem
with the clutch or gearbox , the op i presume inspected the vehicle
prior to purchase was happy with the vehicle .

Its a case of buyer beware

> >
> > If the prevous owner goes to court demanding recompense then he is
> > likely to get nailed for fraud if he states he owns the vehicle
> > when he clearly doesnt which is criminal not civil
>
> I certainly wouldn't suggest he did this. I'm suggesting he tells
> the repairer to pay up or else.

Or else what he takes them to court
>
> >
> > Get hit for all the court costs too even in SCT as the case would
> > be seen as malicous
>
> Who would see it as malicious? And why malicious? The repairers
> buggered it up, for God's sake.


The action is malicous the litigant is not the owner of the vehicle ,
has suffered no loss and is not being persued himself by the op for
losses or repairs to the vehicle .


If the op attempted to sue then the garage quite rightly would argue
that they have no contract with him and again the action if persued
could be viewed malicous


the ops only option would be to sue the seller , again though as its
a private sale and the seller wasnt aware of the faults the ops
chances of recovering any money almost zero unless he could convince
the judge the seller was aware of the faults and did not disclose
them when asked buyer beware

>
> Rob

From: Andy Cap on
On Thu, 27 May 2010 15:17:46 +0100, Michael Hubert Kenyon
<enemabandit(a)virgin.net> wrote:


>> Why can't the original owner claim, on the grounds that he has had to recompense
>> the purchaser, which he should do anyway because he sold him a pup?
>
>Because the car doesn't belong to him anymore. If I sell a car I can't
>pass on a warrenty from the guy who owned it three owners before me can I?

I don't see why that is relevent. He has sustained a monetary loss due to
someone else's negligence and it is up to the Court to decide is he is entitled
to compensation. The whereabouts of the car make no difference to that fact.

Andy C